DJFlare84
Mechanic
I recently got into a debate with a friend of mine about this and I'd like to gather un-biased public opinion on this. I won't state who held which stance to further ensure a lack of any bias.
First I will offer an example scenario, and then I will offer the two different standpoints on the matter.
STANCE-1: The woman was not tempting the man because the man did not feel tempted.
STANCE-2: The woman was tempting the man. It counts as tempting simply because she made the attempt, regardless of how the man regarded her offer.
So now I'd like you to give your thoughts, and I will include a poll. I have set the poll to allow you to change your vote at any time you wish.
EDIT: Before anyone points it out, yes, we indeed also argued about the official definitions as listed in Mirriam-Webster's. Don't be the douchebag who tries to pull a "let me google that for you". Nobody ever likes that.
First I will offer an example scenario, and then I will offer the two different standpoints on the matter.
~EXAMPLE~
A man is offered 10 dollars by some woman to perform an unsavory task. The man refuses the offer easily, not believing 10 dollars to be anywhere near enough to make up for what he will lose in return. He does not find the offer tempting in the least.
STANCE-1: The woman was not tempting the man because the man did not feel tempted.
STANCE-2: The woman was tempting the man. It counts as tempting simply because she made the attempt, regardless of how the man regarded her offer.
So now I'd like you to give your thoughts, and I will include a poll. I have set the poll to allow you to change your vote at any time you wish.
EDIT: Before anyone points it out, yes, we indeed also argued about the official definitions as listed in Mirriam-Webster's. Don't be the douchebag who tries to pull a "let me google that for you". Nobody ever likes that.
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